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So it may be raised on say 4 December but dated 30 November. Can a client therefore raise an invoice some weeks or months later where it has been omitted in error (there are no VAT implications as the client is cash accounting)?Many people ask us if we can issue an invoice that is dated a few days before or after we would normally do so. Bdend-1g /* Trending Now */ /* Center Rail */ #ya-center-rail .profile-banner-default .ya-ba-title #Stencil . Bgc-lgr #ya-best-answer, #ya-qpage-msg, #ya-question-detail, li.ya-other-answer .tupwrap .comment-text /* Right Rail */ #Stencil . Bxsh-003-prpl #yai-q-answer, #ya-trending, #ya-related-questions h2. Fw-300 .qstn-title #ya-trending-questions-show-more, #ya-related-questions-show-more #ya-trending-questions-more, #ya-related-questions-more /* DMROS */ .
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How is it perceived if I just post the invoices received in Feb 2014 as 31-jan-2014 to avoid making journals?
As long as Jan and feb are in the same VAT quarter, it doesnt have vat effect.
Eg accounts work or any other services rendered in Jan 2014, we will get the invoice in Feb 2014.
The logical treatment is to post invoice in feb 2014 and accrue for it in Jan 2014.
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An invoice/receipt is requested in the desired month and customers are even prepared to pay early.
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